Catholic Q&A
- Eleventh Doctor
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Also it was Peter who was in error and originally wanted the Gentiles to be circumcised. This is a perfect example of why all the bishops are needed.
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
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Uh huh.Eleventh Doctor wrote:How do you know it was held from the beginning if it wasn't written about and the councils behaved like it didn't exist?
I mean to be perfectly frank to me the Catholic version of Christ to St. Peter goes like this. "You are Peter and on you I will build my rock, but you know not at Antioch which was your first and main bishopric but Rome for some reason. Also people aren't going to write about this explicitly or even really behave like they realize this, in fact during the first 700 plus years of the church when all the other major doctrines of the church are defined this won't really be discussed much but then like in 1100 after half the church breaks away because they think the bishop of Rome is abusing his power those churches accused of abuse will then explicitly state that the bishop of Rome is the universal bishop."
As to the idea of Peter not being supremal at that council, here you go. Blitz, you probably have not read this but I will warn you it is somewhat long. Good Dr., you read this but never directly addressed it. You may recall you did, but you simply said I was "twisting" scripture and came up with further arguments for you position. You never directly addressed how the claims misrepresented the Bible. You never said anything like, "You say James said this, but he actually said..." Or, "You say Peter's word was accepted as authoritative, but really..." When asked repeatedly to do so, you flately refused. Anyhow, here you are again.
PS Oh yeah. And as an afterthought, thank you for the help, Jehoshaphat. I appreciate it. And needed it, maybe just a little.
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- Eleventh Doctor
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We went over the Acts 15 issue already. I quote Acts 15:18 "Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God" The I in this sentence being James. Your article says it's only agreeing with Peter but my interpretation is that James is claiming authority and the right to judge what is right. In any case if this was an argument for the primacy of Peter then it would be Antioch not Rome who has primacy since Peter in this council was bishop of Antioch.
I accept the sources up Ephraim the Syrian and again affirm that I grant preeminence to Peter and his successors; that does not equal universal authority and infallibility. Also can you please provide links to your sources? Because I am finding some radically different translations.
For example you say
I accept the sources up Ephraim the Syrian and again affirm that I grant preeminence to Peter and his successors; that does not equal universal authority and infallibility. Also can you please provide links to your sources? Because I am finding some radically different translations.
For example you say
I read instead this.[A]nd although he assigns a like power to all the apostles, yet he founded a single chair [cathedra], and he established by his own authority a source and an intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were that also which Peter was [i.e., apostles], but a primacy is given to Peter
Completely different.[A]nd although after His resurrection He bestows equal power upon all the Apostles, and says: 'As the Father has sent me, I also send you. Receive ye the Holy Spirit: if you forgive the sins of anyone, they will be forgiven him; if you retain the sins of anyone, they will be retained,' yet that He might display unity, He established by His authority the origin of the same unity as beginning from one. Surely the rest of the Apostles also were that which Peter was, endowed with an equal partnership of office and of power.
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
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Even if you read more into the passage, you must agree that, whatever else he may be doing, James is agreeing. He did not suggest a solution himself. He concurred with Peter.
As to the quotes, again, you mustn't expect me to provide a link for things. I prefer books. However, the list is online, on Catholic Answers. Catholic Answers existed long before their website and is a well known, authoritative source:
http://www.catholic.com/tracts/peters-primacy
However, one might ask, which sites do you find your versions on? And do you expect versions of documents you find online to be top-notch translations?
As to the quotes, again, you mustn't expect me to provide a link for things. I prefer books. However, the list is online, on Catholic Answers. Catholic Answers existed long before their website and is a well known, authoritative source:
http://www.catholic.com/tracts/peters-primacy
However, one might ask, which sites do you find your versions on? And do you expect versions of documents you find online to be top-notch translations?
“I absolutely demand of you and everyone I know that they be widely read in every [censored] field there is: in every religion and every art form and don’t tell me you haven’t got time! There’s plenty of time.”~ Ray Bradbury
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He said it was by his judgement though, so he was the one who decided. In any case that makes him just as authoritative as the pope at the Fourth Council when the pope agreed with St. Cyril of Alexandria. You also didn't answer my question about Antioch.
Well lets focus on on the quote by Cyprian of Carthage in his work The Unity of the Catholic Church since that is the strongest quote for primacy pre-schism. I looked it up and found the Christian Classics Ethereal Library translation that is radically different than your translation. This Catholic translation from Eternal Word Television Network https://www.ewtn.com/faith/teachings/churc1.htm also disagrees with your translation. This source, another Catholic source, also disagrees with your translation: http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050701.htm This issue is explained in the Encyclopedia Britannica article on St. Cyprian, he wrote two drafts of chapter 4 where it talks about Peter's Primacy, as the article says he did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives. Thus your draft is the one in error: http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/top ... #ref109285
Well lets focus on on the quote by Cyprian of Carthage in his work The Unity of the Catholic Church since that is the strongest quote for primacy pre-schism. I looked it up and found the Christian Classics Ethereal Library translation that is radically different than your translation. This Catholic translation from Eternal Word Television Network https://www.ewtn.com/faith/teachings/churc1.htm also disagrees with your translation. This source, another Catholic source, also disagrees with your translation: http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050701.htm This issue is explained in the Encyclopedia Britannica article on St. Cyprian, he wrote two drafts of chapter 4 where it talks about Peter's Primacy, as the article says he did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives. Thus your draft is the one in error: http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/top ... #ref109285
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
"It's particularly ignorant to assume malicious or ignorant intentions behind an opinion with which one disagrees." ~Connie
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So, Good Doctor, I asked around, and people supplied some information.
I just want to point out that I don't think the Cyprian quote is the strongest pro-primacy one before the Schism. I think the comments by the Ecumenical Councils of Chalcedon and Ephesus are stronger, because those Councils affirm that the bishop of Rome is the head of the Church, that he has a right to depose bishops in the East, and they seek his ratification in order for the Councils to be valid. (Admittedly, Chalcedon is more clear than Ephesus about this, because Ephesus doesn't explicitly say, by my reading anyway, that the pope's ratification is *necessary*. But Chalcedon does.)
I also think St. Irenaeus has stronger comments about the primacy of the Church of Rome. He even says it is necessary to maintain communion with the Church of Rome and implies that it cannot fall into heresy, which is an early support for papal infallibility.
The Catholic Encyclopedia presents an alternative explanation of the two versions. In their explanation, if I understand it correctly, St. Cyprian sent the book "On the Unity of the Catholic Church" to Pope Cornelius on the occasion of a papal schism started by Novatian. If their explanation is correct, it seems that St. Cyprian added the comments about the one chair of Peter and the need to remain in communion with Rome as a way of scolding the Novatianist schismatics. If that is to be believed, then it seems the more pro-papal version is the later edition.
It is interesting that the Encyclopedia Brittanica and the Catholic Encyclopedia seem to present contrary explanations of the two editions. Brittanica seems to say that St. Cyprian edited out the more pro-papal comments, while the Catholic Encyclopedia seems to say he edited them in. It seems to me that we should judge which one is correct by examining the evidence. What evidence have they presented?
Brittanica's evidence seems to be, in your words, "he wrote two drafts of chapter 4 where it talks about Peter's Primacy, as the article says he did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives."
What evidence do they have that St. Cyprian did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives? I think the evidence suggests the contrary. For example, in 254 A.D., St. Cyprian wrote to Pope Stephen to urge him to depose a bishop in France. (Letter 66) If he didn't believe in Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives, why did he appeal to the pope to depose someone in another country?
Another reason to doubt Brittanica's explanation and accept the Catholic Encyclopedia's is that the Catholic Encyclopedia's fits other data we know. For example, we know that St. Cyprian opposed the Novatianist schism when it started, and sent Pope Cornelius a letter saying so and including some other documents. Letter 41 says so. That fits what the Catholic Enyclopedia says about the occasion for his editing in the comments about remaining in communion with the chair of Peter.
For these reasons, I think we should accept the explanation of this issue by the Catholic Encyclopedia, and regard the edition with the more pro-papal comments as an authentic expression of the mind of St. Cyprian.
The edition that lacks the comments about there being one chair of Peter still says that Jesus built His Church on Peter. It also says that the unity of the Church proceeds from Peter, and when he says that we must remain in communion with this Church, his remarks about the Church proceeding from Peter form the backdrop. To me, that is evidence that we must remain in communion with Rome, even though it is not as explicit as it is in the edition with the more pro-papal comments.
As to EWTN, it seem it took its translation from New Advent, and New Advent took its translation from a compilation of Church Fathers' writings by Philip Schaff, a Protestant. Catholic Answers, on the other hand, took their translation from William Jurgens, a Catholic. That could explain why they are different.
I just want to point out that I don't think the Cyprian quote is the strongest pro-primacy one before the Schism. I think the comments by the Ecumenical Councils of Chalcedon and Ephesus are stronger, because those Councils affirm that the bishop of Rome is the head of the Church, that he has a right to depose bishops in the East, and they seek his ratification in order for the Councils to be valid. (Admittedly, Chalcedon is more clear than Ephesus about this, because Ephesus doesn't explicitly say, by my reading anyway, that the pope's ratification is *necessary*. But Chalcedon does.)
I also think St. Irenaeus has stronger comments about the primacy of the Church of Rome. He even says it is necessary to maintain communion with the Church of Rome and implies that it cannot fall into heresy, which is an early support for papal infallibility.
The Catholic Encyclopedia presents an alternative explanation of the two versions. In their explanation, if I understand it correctly, St. Cyprian sent the book "On the Unity of the Catholic Church" to Pope Cornelius on the occasion of a papal schism started by Novatian. If their explanation is correct, it seems that St. Cyprian added the comments about the one chair of Peter and the need to remain in communion with Rome as a way of scolding the Novatianist schismatics. If that is to be believed, then it seems the more pro-papal version is the later edition.
It is interesting that the Encyclopedia Brittanica and the Catholic Encyclopedia seem to present contrary explanations of the two editions. Brittanica seems to say that St. Cyprian edited out the more pro-papal comments, while the Catholic Encyclopedia seems to say he edited them in. It seems to me that we should judge which one is correct by examining the evidence. What evidence have they presented?
Brittanica's evidence seems to be, in your words, "he wrote two drafts of chapter 4 where it talks about Peter's Primacy, as the article says he did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives."
What evidence do they have that St. Cyprian did not accept Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives? I think the evidence suggests the contrary. For example, in 254 A.D., St. Cyprian wrote to Pope Stephen to urge him to depose a bishop in France. (Letter 66) If he didn't believe in Rome's jurisdictional prerogatives, why did he appeal to the pope to depose someone in another country?
Another reason to doubt Brittanica's explanation and accept the Catholic Encyclopedia's is that the Catholic Encyclopedia's fits other data we know. For example, we know that St. Cyprian opposed the Novatianist schism when it started, and sent Pope Cornelius a letter saying so and including some other documents. Letter 41 says so. That fits what the Catholic Enyclopedia says about the occasion for his editing in the comments about remaining in communion with the chair of Peter.
For these reasons, I think we should accept the explanation of this issue by the Catholic Encyclopedia, and regard the edition with the more pro-papal comments as an authentic expression of the mind of St. Cyprian.
The edition that lacks the comments about there being one chair of Peter still says that Jesus built His Church on Peter. It also says that the unity of the Church proceeds from Peter, and when he says that we must remain in communion with this Church, his remarks about the Church proceeding from Peter form the backdrop. To me, that is evidence that we must remain in communion with Rome, even though it is not as explicit as it is in the edition with the more pro-papal comments.
As to EWTN, it seem it took its translation from New Advent, and New Advent took its translation from a compilation of Church Fathers' writings by Philip Schaff, a Protestant. Catholic Answers, on the other hand, took their translation from William Jurgens, a Catholic. That could explain why they are different.
“I absolutely demand of you and everyone I know that they be widely read in every [censored] field there is: in every religion and every art form and don’t tell me you haven’t got time! There’s plenty of time.”~ Ray Bradbury
- Eleventh Doctor
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The Council of Ephesus affirms, as do I, that the source of authority for bishops comes from Peter. Where our interpretation differs is that you think that authority came to rest in one See where as I would say it rests in all the Sees. You have still failed to address my point that if Peter has this unique authority why does it rest in Rome versus Antioch which was the Apostles primary See.
I don't see the pope's right to depose bishops in those Councils, could you quote relevant passages?
You did not quote St. Irenaeus.
I take St. Cyprian's quotes again to say that all of the bishops find unity in the Apostolic teachings of St. Peter, not that the last See St. Peter held is now imbued with extra power. St. Cyprian says in letter 66 "You ought to know, then, that the bishop is in the Church and the Church in the bishop, and if someone is not with the bishop, he is not in the Church." The bishop meaning every local bishop, this is just saying that to be in the Church you must be in communion with your local bishop, nothing more. The seat of Peter again, refers to all bishops not just Rome.
As far as saying that he wrote to ask the pope to depose a bishop in France, my reading of the letter suggest that he is simply alerting the pope and other bishops to the fact that the Novation heretic in question has been attempting to establish communion elsewhere. This is just the normal behavior of bishops toward one another when a heretic is attempting to flee the local excommunication. I see in this letter no recognition of universal jurisdiction.
I think our disagreement lies in what we think the chair of Peter to be, you believe it to be a specific See while I believe it to be the authority from which all Sees derive their authority. I also again affirm that I have no problem giving the bishop of Rome special honor but that does not extend to universal authority or individual infallibility.
The differences in translations appears to be moot as we have discussed both translations at this point.
I don't see the pope's right to depose bishops in those Councils, could you quote relevant passages?
You did not quote St. Irenaeus.
I take St. Cyprian's quotes again to say that all of the bishops find unity in the Apostolic teachings of St. Peter, not that the last See St. Peter held is now imbued with extra power. St. Cyprian says in letter 66 "You ought to know, then, that the bishop is in the Church and the Church in the bishop, and if someone is not with the bishop, he is not in the Church." The bishop meaning every local bishop, this is just saying that to be in the Church you must be in communion with your local bishop, nothing more. The seat of Peter again, refers to all bishops not just Rome.
As far as saying that he wrote to ask the pope to depose a bishop in France, my reading of the letter suggest that he is simply alerting the pope and other bishops to the fact that the Novation heretic in question has been attempting to establish communion elsewhere. This is just the normal behavior of bishops toward one another when a heretic is attempting to flee the local excommunication. I see in this letter no recognition of universal jurisdiction.
I think our disagreement lies in what we think the chair of Peter to be, you believe it to be a specific See while I believe it to be the authority from which all Sees derive their authority. I also again affirm that I have no problem giving the bishop of Rome special honor but that does not extend to universal authority or individual infallibility.
The differences in translations appears to be moot as we have discussed both translations at this point.
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
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Why do Catholics believe that bread turns into real flesh and wine turns into real blood during mass?
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Because that is what Jesus said in the Bible.
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It was symbolic, not his actual body. if it were is cannibalism okey?
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- Eleventh Doctor
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A reminder, while you should literally partake of the Body and Blood of Christ you should not feed the troll.
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
"It's particularly ignorant to assume malicious or ignorant intentions behind an opinion with which one disagrees." ~Connie
"It's particularly ignorant to assume malicious or ignorant intentions behind an opinion with which one disagrees." ~Connie
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I know not to feed the troll. But It is a valid point I am sure some people want to discuss. I will say simply one more thing to Jared. If it were symbolic why did of Jesus' followers leave after what he said in John 6?
They left because they didn't understand that he was speaking symbolically.
This may sound like a stupid question, but I'm genuinely curious: if bread and wine actually turns into Jesus' flesh and blood when you take communion, why does it still taste like bread and wine?
This may sound like a stupid question, but I'm genuinely curious: if bread and wine actually turns into Jesus' flesh and blood when you take communion, why does it still taste like bread and wine?
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- jehoshaphat
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Jesus had said "Truly, truly" In Hebrew tradition when a person said a double thing it means that the speaker is not speaking hypothetically. It is a fact. Jesus had been using symbolic language all the way up until he said that. Read the book of John. It is clearly spelled out.
Jesus repeatedly says that he is the bread of life
Jesus repeatedly says that he is the bread of life
Then againJohn 6:32 Jesus answered them: In all truth I tell you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, it is my Father who gives you the bread from heaven, the true bread;
Then againJohn 6:41 Meanwhile the Jews were complaining to each other about him, because he had said, 'I am the bread that has come down from heaven.'
Then againJohn 6:48 I am the bread of life.
Then againJohn 6:51 I am the living bread which has come down from heaven. Anyone who eats this bread will live for ever; and the bread that I shall give is my flesh, for the life of the world.'
The rejected him because it is hard. It is the hardest teaching of the church. It still tastes like bread in wine because the substance changes not the form. Many left because of the hardness of this teaching. He even asked the apostles if they would leave to because he new it was a hard teaching.JOhn 6:52-55 Then the Jews started arguing among themselves, 'How can this man give us his flesh to eat?'
Jesus replied to them: In all truth I tell you, if you do not eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.
Anyone who does eat my flesh and drink my blood has eternal life, and I shall raise that person up on the last day.
For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink.
56 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood lives in me and I live in that person.
- Eleventh Doctor
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Exactly they didn't leave because they didn't understand it was symbolic, they asked Jesus to clarify and Jesus could have said this is symbolic but He didn't that's why they left.
And it still taste like bread and wine because it is still bread and wine and the Body and Blood, two natures like Christ.
And it still taste like bread and wine because it is still bread and wine and the Body and Blood, two natures like Christ.
King of The Lands of Rhetoric, Lord Ruler of the Debate Vampires, and Duke of Quebec
"It's particularly ignorant to assume malicious or ignorant intentions behind an opinion with which one disagrees." ~Connie
"It's particularly ignorant to assume malicious or ignorant intentions behind an opinion with which one disagrees." ~Connie